“Inflation derps” are people from the concrete steppes

Suppose I lend you $1,000, at 0% interest. But I warn you that as soon as you spend that $1,000, or lend it to someone else to spend, I will immediately make you repay the loan, or else raise the interest rate high enough to make you regret spending it or lending it. You will not spend that $1,000. You will keep it somewhere safe. What I actually do (giving you the $1,000 at 0% interest) doesn't matter. It's what you expect about what I would do (make you repay the $1,000 if you spend it) that matters.

The people from the concrete steppes don't get this. Me giving you $1,000 is a concrete action. It's real; they can see it. You expecting me to do something if you were to do something that you won't in fact do is not something concrete. It's not even an expectation about what will happen. It's an expectation about something that won't happen. It's an expecation about a counterfactual conditional. There's nothing more airy fairy than that! But that airy fairy expectation about a counterfactual conditional has real consequences.

The people from the concrete steppes see central banks print lots of money. That's a real concrete step, and real concrete steps have real concrete consequences. Printing lots of money causes lots of inflation. And the fact that lots of inflation hasn't happened yet simply means it's a lagged effect. Lags between causes and effects are real concrete things. Mechanical things have lags. Effects always follow after the causes. Sometimes soon after, but sometimes long after. Effects never come before causes.

If printing lots of money did cause people to spend it and cause inflation, then central banks would immediately put the printing presses into reverse. They would buy back the money they had printed, and burn it, to stop people spending it and causing inflation. And people expect they would do this. And no individual will spend unless he expects other individuals to spend. So nobody spends. It's a credit deadlock, created by counterfactual conditional expectations about what central banks would do if people did something that they won't do, because of those expectations.

Paul Krugman calls them "inflation derps", because they keep on ignoring the empirical evidence that falsifies their predictions of high inflation. OK. But they are also people from the concrete steppes. They cannot see the thing that is causing their predictions to fail, because that thing is not a concrete thing. And lags between cause and effect are concrete things. It's the lack of confidence fairy that is falsifying their predictions. A commitment by the central bank not to do what people expect it to do, to change those counterfactual conditional expectations, would change things. Something like an NGDP level path target. "Yes, we will let you spend that $1,000 we lent you at 0% interest."

68 comments

  1. Majromax's avatar

    @Nick:
    I wonder if a useful question for now would be “what would it take to cause hyperinflation?” ‘Inflation derps’ seem to be saying that hyperinflation is just around the corner, but that is very much not what mainstream economists are saying.
    We have a number of recent examples of situations where hyperinflation happens, but I haven’t seen much from ‘non-derps’ about the minimal set of actions a CB would need to take to cause hyperinflation, especially form a ZLB-ish starting point.
    I expect that mainstream economics would put that minimal set of actions well beyond the current Fed, BoC, and ECB policies (noting that those three aren’t the same anyway), but that’s just a layperson’s hunch.

  2. Steve Roth's avatar

    @Fflloyyd:
    Well if wealth and income were not so (increasingly) concentrated, marginal propensity to consume by the less wealthy could do a lot of the spending work for us. Absent that, government could step in as the proxy spender for that larger mass of spenders. (Or, just give more money to those high-MPC spenders and let them do it). Properly spent, that money could also have the salutary effect of reducing wealth/income concentration, so increasing the velocity of wealth.
    If the Fed were less anxious about the bogeyman wage inflation as a terrifying harbinger of goods/services inflation, they would allow (actually, encourage) the resulting upward spiral, only stepping on it when actual goods/services inflation became worrisome. They might also raise the bar for what “worrisome” means.

  3. Majromax's avatar

    @Roth:
    Marginal propensity to consume is a partial equilibrium analysis. If I decide to save $100 by buying stock or bonds, then that means that someone else — a prior holder, or the debt/stock issuer — has $100 now that they have to do something with.
    They could save it, but then the process repeats. It’s only when the money is “saved” via cash, bank reserves, or sold to the CB (in a monetary contraction) that the currency actually leaves circulation.

  4. collin's avatar

    What if the developed nations simply have an inability to increase inflation with normal Fed tools? To have inflation you need more demand than supply but the West has had falling populations in the 25 – 50 year bracket. So the issue is not Fed or fiscal policy but too little growth in families. In all reality, all developed nations are doing their version of Turning Japanese.

  5. Miami Vice's avatar
    Miami Vice · · Reply

    How does central bank spends money on expected government outlays change expectations?
    If the bridge was going to be built anyway who cares?

  6. Miami Vice's avatar
    Miami Vice · · Reply

    Unless actual plans for spending are changed, what difference does it make what the interest rate is? Or how much money there is? the central bank buying mortgages increases the demand for mortgages and the supply of mortgages. If the central bank buys government debt without the result being an increase in supply what difference does it make to ngdp?

  7. Steve Roth's avatar

    @ Majromax
    Not so if you you’re looking at Velocity of Wealth.
    http://research.stlouisfed.org/fred2/graph/?g=OfY
    Now you could claim that higher velocity of wealth causes there to be less wealth hence the same amount of spending, but it seems the effect of higher spending on wealth would be the opposite: more production, so more surplus from production, more profit, more hiring, etc. Y is higher than in the counterfactual. The see-saw levitates.

  8. louis's avatar

    A little late here, but I’ve read the comments and still have a question.
    I understand the mistake of the concrete steppists – if the CB is credible in fighting inflation above its (say 2%) target, then one shouldn’t make spending/investing/pricing decisions predicated on >2% inflation. Regardless of how much credit is available, spending won’t accelerate to the point that inflation exceeds 2%.
    All fine. But where I have trouble is the implication that printing money has no effect at all on spending.
    “If printing lots of money did cause people to spend it and cause inflation, then central banks would immediately put the printing presses into reverse. They would buy back the money they had printed, and burn it, to stop people spending it and causing inflation. And people expect they would do this. And no individual will spend unless he expects other individuals to spend. So nobody spends. It’s a credit deadlock, created by counterfactual conditional expectations about what central banks would do if people did something that they won’t do, because of those expectations.”
    If inflation is running below target, I don’t see the “nobody spends” deadlock occurring. The individual sees two possible outcomes: nobody spends, and credit stays cheap, and everybody spends to the point that inflation gets back to target before the CB reverses course. Seems in either situation it’s rational to borrow and spend, no?
    Also if the CB is lending to you for term (taking duration onto its balance sheet), it may be rational to borrow for term and spend, even if you think the CB will be increasing rates soon in response to the spending.

  9. Majromax's avatar

    If inflation is running below target, I don’t see the “nobody spends” deadlock occurring. The individual sees two possible outcomes: nobody spends, and credit stays cheap, and everybody spends to the point that inflation gets back to target before the CB reverses course. Seems in either situation it’s rational to borrow and spend, no?
    Suppose that the CB lends $100 to me at 0% interest, rolling over on a daily basis. The CB can change its interest rate at the next rollover, and it has indicated that it will do so only if inflation begins to increase towards its 2% target.
    I’m the representative agent, but I don’t know that. I’m inclined to spend some fraction of that $100, but I’m not allowed to take any actions that will put me in default if the CB refuses to roll over the loan.
    So, I my income to remain steady in real terms and nominally increase with the inflation rate. Because of the CB’s statements, I expect inflation to remain between 0-2%, and if it gets above that I’ll have to repay the loan.
    That means that I’ll only feel safe spending a small fraction of that loaned amount — somewhere in the 0-2% neighborhood. That way, if inflation does rise and the CB calls in the loan, I’ll be able to pay off the portion I consumed with the nominal (inflation) increase in my income.
    Now, since I’m the representative agent it turns out that spending comes back to me as additional income — bonus! But I don’t know that’s why it came back to me, nor can I be certain it’s an increase in my permanent income. To the extent that I’m not certain, that CB-loan-consumption is a windfall. I’ll probably figure things out over time, but it will still take me ages to consume the entire $100.
    Now, if the CB gave me that $100 loan and said it wouldn’t call it in until inflation was above 5% (that is, temporarily changing the inflation target), then I’d be confident to consume a proportionally greater fraction of the loan.
    If the CB gave me $100 and said it was never calling it in (a permanent increase in the monetary base), then I wouldn’t hesitate to spend the entire amount. In fact, I’d probably rush to do it as quickly as possible in order to outrace others’ inflation expectations and price hikes.
    The CB giving me a long-term loan is somewhere between the extremes. If it was a 0% loan for 999 years, I’d consider it something like a gift; if it was for two days rather than one then it would make no difference. Term structure would be the CB’s way of saying “this is a temporary but long-term increase in the monetary base,” and I think politically that would make everyone unhappy.

  10. Maurizio's avatar
    Maurizio · · Reply

    So the reason prices are not rising is that people expect the Fed to put printing presses in reverse as soon as they start rising.
    This makes a lot of sense. Thanks a lot for clarifying that. However I have a few questions:
    1) is this a falsifiable theory? What would it take for you to stop believing that is the true reason?
    2) If this explanation is true, it is not clear to me why there has ever been inflation in the past. Why was that?
    3) What about the claim that, if we count stock prices, inflation did rise? (OTOH, commodity prices are down, so I am not sure on net there was inflation in assets).

  11. Majromax's avatar
    Majromax · · Reply

    is this a falsifiable theory? What would it take for you to stop believing that is the true reason?
    Well, this isn’t so much a predictive theory in and of itself as an explanation of why another theory (QE should lead to massive inflation) is false.
    This story would be false (or incomplete) if we do see massive US inflation for no other reason than QE. The primary indication there would be something along the lines of hyperstagflation, where real output stays low while inflation goes well above the Fed’s target.
    This also isn’t a theory of “no inflation, ever” — it’s instead a theory as to why inflation hasn’t picked up as quickly as many, including the Fed itself, would like. A primary deeper-level piece of evidence in this story’s favour is that the greatly expanded monetary base is not reflected in circulating, M2 money stock.
    If M2:MBase ratios reach historical levels with an expanded MBase, then it would be fair to conclude that “nobody wants to spend because the Fed will call it in” is false. This could be evidence that either people are spending anyway, or evidence that people think that the expanded MBase is permanent-ish.
    If this explanation is true, it is not clear to me why there has ever been inflation in the past. Why was that?
    Because most traditional inflation has been demand-driven, coinciding with (and arguably following) expectations of relatively rapid growth.
    What about the claim that, if we count stock prices, inflation did rise?
    Why should stock prices be considered part of inflation? Nobody eats, lives in, or otherwise consumes stocks.
    Assets can be highly-priced if, collectively, people wish to save a great deal of their income and/or defer consumption until later. In that case, they will be willing to accept low rents on land and low returns on capital. A farmer’s field will still produce the same number of carrots regardless of the underlying land price, so high land prices and low carrot prices say something about people’s preferences.
    House prices are a bit special because rent-equivalence is an imperfect way of measuring housing costs. In many areas, you simply can’t rent the same kinds of homes that you can buy (and vice versa). This argument doesn’t apply to nominal-valued savings vehicles.

  12. Maurizio's avatar

    I will immediately make you repay the loan… to make you regret spending it or lending it. You will not spend that $1,000.

    Sorry if this has already been asked: ok, printing money while threatening people from spending it will not cause inflation. But why should we expect it to help exit the depression? I.e. I get why it won’t cause inflation, but why should it have any positive effect at all? Thanks

  13. Majromax's avatar

    @Maurizio:

    Sorry if this has already been asked: ok, printing money while threatening people from spending it will not cause inflation. But why should we expect it to help exit the depression? I.e. I get why it won’t cause inflation, but why should it have any positive effect at all? Thanks
    Two factors come into play here.
    The first is that “you won’t spend it” isn’t quite a binary decision. It’s more like “you won’t spend much” of it, as I noted in my comment above. Even if you’re only comfortable spending 1% of that total per year, that’s still a small net boost to aggregate demand.
    The second factor is that the policy does act as insurance against deflation. As another recent post here noted, the subjective chance of significant deflation in 2008 was quite high. QE acts as a stopgap, which improves the mean expected inflation slightly by cutting off the long, deflationary tail.
    Truth be told, the US economy would be better off if the “inflation derps” were correct. If QE was a recipe for significant, near-term inflation in the current economic climate, then the US wouldn’t have needed nearly as much of it, nor would its forward-looking inflation expectations still be below 2%.

  14. Maurizio's avatar
    Maurizio · · Reply

    The second factor is that the policy does act as insurance against deflation.

    I see. But then, if it avoids deflation, it is wrong to say it does not create inflation. It does create inflation relative to the counterfactual (i.e. relative to what would have been if the policy had not been enacted).
    I think a lot of misunderstanding is caused by this. QE did create inflation relative to the counterfactual, but not relative to the previous price level.

  15. Majromax's avatar

    I see. But then, if it avoids deflation, it is wrong to say it does not create inflation. It does create inflation relative to the counterfactual (i.e. relative to what would have been if the policy had not been enacted).
    No, I think that’s improperly glossing over a qualitative difference.
    While the mainstream thought is that QE prevented modest deflation in the United States, I believe that it did so through not through changing a median estimate, but instead through eliminating the low probability, high-deflation events.
    Deflationary fears were supported by the idea of mortgage risk and counterparty risk; it wasn’t simply that AD was insufficient, it’s that credit was tight because a bank couldn’t trust its own balance sheet or its peers. Through outright purchases of mortgage-backed securities, the Fed took that risk on itself.
    In the language of Nick’s post here, it said “if the mortgages really go under, this expansion of the monetary base will be permanent.” In turn, it’s not surprising that successive rounds of QE are not having a markedly inflationary impact. Further purchases of government debt and not-risky assets are not changing anyone’s ideas of conditional solvency of banks, and at the same time the Fed is unlikely to take a nominal loss if it holds its assets to maturity (meaning there’s little long-term barrier to unwinding QE).
    On the other hand, the “inflation derp” argument is a median-based one, which looks like the basic quantity theory of money: it suggests that since MBase has gone up markedly (true), much more than potential RGDP growth (also true), ergo the price level must also increase after short-term disruption (maybe not true).
    So the mechanisms by which “QE did create inflation relative to the counterfactual” do not directly extend forward. That forms the core of the difference between inflationary and noninflationary interpretations of QE.

  16. Maurizio's avatar
    Maurizio · · Reply

    if the mortgages really go under, this expansion of the monetary base will be permanent.
    Very insightful.
    So we can say that the market currently thinks that the mortgages will not go under. Right? (because it treated the monetary expansion as not permanent).
    And if the mortgages do go under, the market will suddenly realize it was wrong, and we will have a sudden burst of inflation?
    I wonder what is the likelihood that they will go under.

  17. Majromax's avatar
    Majromax · · Reply

    And if the mortgages do go under, the market will suddenly realize it was wrong, and we will have a sudden burst of inflation?
    To the extent that the Fed holds mortgage-backed securities that take a loss, yes. But the monetary base expansion has been half treasuries and half MBSes:

    (I don’t know what causes the gap in 2008-10, it seems to be a mix of under term loans and the ad-hoc “Other Assets” on the Fed’s releases)
    However, that effect would be mitigated somewhat by a renewed round of bank losses, depending on whether the mortgage losses are confined to what the Fed holds or what the private sector holds.
    I wonder what is the likelihood that they will go under.
    Probably low. If nothing else, the Fed is in a position to hold things to maturity, whereas the banks have a mix of liquidity and solvency issues.

  18. Maurizio's avatar
    Maurizio · · Reply

    Majromax, thank you for your helpfulness šŸ™‚

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